Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 00:26
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If a female has XX chromosomes and a male has XY chromosomes, what chromosomes do transgenders have?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
It seems that I am cursed with bad luck. How do I break such a curse?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.